Education in India

To facilitate the students of Andhra Pradesh, National Network of Education (NNE) has compiled this easy-to-follow section containing the Exam Schedules of the Intermediate and SSC Examinations.

Intermediate General First Year Examination March 2010 Timetable
Intermediate Vocational First Year Examination March 2010 Timetable
Intermediate General Second Year Examination March 2010 Timetable
Intermediate Vocational Second Year Examination March 2010 Timetable

SSC Examination 2010 Timetable

pls click here to view>>

University of Allahabad Examination Results 2010
TIMETABLES AVAILABLE - B.A. Part I, II, III, B.Sc. Part I, II, III, B.Com. Part I, II, III, B.Sc. Home Science Part I, II, III, B.Sc. Appl. Sc. Part I, II, III
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University of Kota Examination Results 2009
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http://results.rajasthaneducation.net/ku/
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Model Questions Bank 2009 Paper

1. India test-fired Agni III on
A) May 15, 2008
B) May 17, 2008
C) May 20, 2008
D) May 7, 2008

2. Which one of the following countries is not included in the elite club which India joined after its successful test firing of Agni III
A) Russia
B) U.S.A.
C) U.K.
D) France

3. M. Natrajan is
A) Scientific Advisor to the Defence Minister
B) Chief Controller and Programme Director of Agni Missile System
C) Scientific Advisor to the Prime Minister
D) None of the above

4. Currently which one of the following organizations is celebrating its golden jubilee (year) ?
A) ISRO
B) CBI
C) DRDO
D) NASSCOM

5. India and Malaysia held their joint naval exercise at
A) Andman island
B) Nicobar island
C) Lumut
D) Kualalampur

6. SERB stands for—
A) Social Enlightenment and Research Board
B) Scientific And Engineering Research Board
C) Scientists’ and Engineers’ Research Board
D) Science and Engineering Research Board

7. CEP (Circular Error Probability) is associated with
A) Prithvi II
B) Chandryan I
C) Narco Analysis test conducted on Aarushis’ alleged murderer
D) The finalization of Indo-US Nuclear deal

8. The country which recently announced to have its own version of Star Wars
A) France
B) Japan
C) China
D) North Korea

9. The Indian state which, in May 2008, launched Food Security Scheme
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Chhattisgarh
C) Tamil Nadu
D) Jammu & Kashmir

10. The most coveted award at the 61st Cannes Film Festival was received by
A) ‘Hunger’
B) Line of Passage
C) ‘The Class’
D) Three Monkeys

11. The Winner of the Scripps National Spelling Bee Contest is
A) Ravi Kumar
B) Sameer Mishra
C) Kuljit Singh
D) None of these

12. ‘Travelling Through Conflict’ is a book written by
A) Hamid Ansari
B) Cherie Blair
C) Balraj Krishna
D) Salman Rushdie

13. According to the Global Peace Index released in May 2008, the most peaceful country on the earth is
A) New Zealand
B) Norway
C) Denmark
D) Iceland

14. Which of the following was recently granted Navratna status to ?
A) PGCIL
B) REC
C) NALCO
D) All the above

15. In terms of billionnaire population. Mumbai ranks…… at world level ?
A) Sixth
B) Fifth
C) Fourth
D) Seventh

16. According to a report, the number of Indians who have a problem of loud snoring during sleep is
A) 35 million
B) 36 million
C) 40 million
D) 45 million

17. The government has planned to establish ………… universities of global standards across the country ?
A) 10
B) 14
C) 20
D) 16

18. The government has increased Minimum Support Price of
A) Wheat
B) Paddy
C) Cane
D) None of these

19. India recently refused to accept the offer of funds/loans from World Bank for
A) Disaster management
B) North-East projects
C) Tiger protection
D) None of the above

20. Yves Saint Laurent recently died. He was a
A) U.S.A. film director
B) First man to go to Mars mission
C) Renowned fashion designer
D) An internationally renowned financial expert

Answers:
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (C) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20 (C)

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SBI clerical Staff recruitment
General Awareness sample Question Paper 2008

1.Who amongst the following is the Head of the RBI at present?
1) Mr. K V. Kamath
2) Dr. Y.V. Reddy
3) Mr. Y.R. Narayanamurthy
4) Mr. O.P. Bhatt
5) None of these

2.India has different categories of Commercial banks. Which of the following is not
one such category?
1) Private Banks
2) Commodity Banks
3) Nationalised Banks
4) Co-operative Banks
5) Foreign Banks

3.The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) recently imposed a restriction
on money flow in equity through P-Notes. What is the full form of P-Notes ?
1) Permanent Notes
2) Purchase Notes
3) Participatory Notes
4) Private Notes
5) None of these

4.Who amongst the following was the Captain of the Indian cricket team which won the
Twenty20 World Cup2007 ?
1) Yuvraj Singh
2) M.S. Dhoni
3) Rahul Dravid
4) Sourav Ganguly
5) None of these

5.The money which Government of India spends on the development of infrastructure in
country comes from which of the following sources? [pick. up the correct
statement(s)]
A) Loan from World Bank/ ADB, etc.
B) Taxes collected from the people.
C) Loan from the RBI.
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Both A & B
5) All A, B & C

6.Which of the following organisations / agencies has established a fund known as
Investor Protection Fund ?
1) SEBI
2) NABARD
3) Bombay Stock Exchange
4) Ministry,.\of Health
5) None of these

7.Which of the following departments of the Government of India is helping banks in
disbursement of rural credit by the banks?
1) Railways
2) State Road Transports
3) Posts & Telegraph
4) Ministry of Health
5) None of these

8.Which of the following types of banks are allowed to operate foreign currency
accounts ?
A) Foreign Banks
B) Regional Rural Banks
C) Nationalised Banks
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) All A, B & C
5) None of these

9.Majority of rural people still prefer to go to which of the following for their
credit needs?
1) Money lenders
2) Foreign banks
3) NABARD
4) RBI
5) All of these

10.Which of the following countries does not play international cricket?
1) Russia
2) England
3) South Africa
4) Pakistan
5) India

11.Which of the following countries in the world is the biggest consumer of gold?
1) USA
2) Bangladesh
3) Russia
4) India
5) None of these

12.Many times we read in financial newspapers about FII . What is the full form of
FII ?
1) Final Investment in India
2) Foreign Investment in India
3) Formal Investment in India
4) Fair Institutional Investment
5) Foreign Institutional Investment

13.The financial markets of which of the following countries were badly affected by
sub prime crisis ?
1) Russia
2) Brazil
3) UK
4) USA
5) None of these

14.One of the former Prime Ministers of which of the following countries was detained
in house arrest for a short period after his/her return from a long exile?
1) Germany
2) France
3) Pakistan
4) Brazil
5) None of these

15.Which of the following countries is facing problem of strike by the workers of the
transport, electricity and gas companies as the present Government of the country
has decided to end the pension to these workers?
1) USA
2) France
3) China
4) Nepal
5) None of these

16.Benazir Bhutto is associated with which of the following political parties?
1) Muslim League
2) Pakistan Peoples Party
3) Pakistan National Congress
4) Islamic Movement of Pakistan
5) None of these

17.Who amongst the following is the Secretary-General of UNO?
1) Al Gore
2) Shashi Tharoor
3) Gordon Brown
4) Hugo Chavez
5) None of these

18.Manmohan Singh called George Bush to explain the difficulties he is having in
implementing agreements related with which of the following with USA?
l}Supply of Sugar
2) Civilian Nuclear Cooperation
3) Purchase Fighter Planes
4) Purchase of Gas/Petroleum
5) None of these

19.Which of the following countries recently decided to launch a military action in
Northern Iraq where many Kurdish PKK fighters are based and they are killing
people from that country ?
1) India
2) Afghanistan
3) Pakistan
4) Bangladesh
5) Turkey

20.The Orange Coalition Government was formed once again in which of the following
countries?
1) Russia
2) Ukraine
3) France
4) Germany
5) None of these

21.As reported in papers the UN World Food Programmes stopped distributing food in
Mogadishu town after its local head was abducted by the government soldiers of the
country. Mogadishu is the capital town of
1) Tanzania
2) Turkey
3) Cuba
4) Libya
5) Somalia

22.Who amongst the following leaders from USA visited Israel and Palestinian West
Bank so that a solution to the Israel and Palestinian problem can be worked out?
1) George Bush
2) Al Gore
3) Bill Clinton
4) Condoleezza Rice
5) None of these

23.Which of the following countries is not elected by the UN General Assembly on the
non-permanent seats of the UN Security Council w.e.f. January 2008 ?
1) Libya
2) Vietnam
3) Croatia
4) Costa Rica
5) Pakistan

24.Which of the following countries is not happy with the USA s � decision to award a
Congressional Medal to Dalai Lama of Tibet?
1) India
2) Pakistan
3) Nepal
4) Myanmar
5) China

25.Justine Henin won the Womens Singles US Open Tennis Championship 2007 after
defeating
1) Svetlana Kuznetsova
2) Sania Mirza
3) Dinara Safina
4) Mathalie Dechy
5) None of these

26.India won the ONGC Nehru Cup Football Tournament 2007 by beating
1) Syria
2) Pakistan
3) Britain
4) France
5) None of these

27.Who amongst the following is selected for Basava Award (2006-07) by the Karnataka
Government?
1) Manmohan Singh
2) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
3) Sonia Gandhi
4) Pratibha Patil
5) None of these

28.Shinzo Abe who was on a visit to India in recent past is the
1) Prime Minister of South Korea
2) Prime Minister of North Korea
3) Prime Minister of Japan
4) President of South Korea
5) None of these

29.Abdullah Guls name was in news recently as he has taken over as the President of
1) Turkey
2) Sudan
3) Afghanistan
4) Pakistan
5) None of these

30.Hem Dutta who was honoured with the prestigious Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhawana
Award 2007 is a famous
1) author
2) social activist
3) player
4) film producer
5) scientist

31.Asafa Powell who created a new world record in 100 metres race is a citizen of
1) Jamaica
2) South Africa
3) India
4) USA
5) South Korea

32.The World Athletics Championship 2007 was organised in
1) Beijing
2) New Delhi
3) Osaka
4) Dhaka
5) London

33.Who amongst the following got third position in long jump event of the Bayer
International Athletics Meet held in Germany in 2007 ?
1) Shiny Wilson
2) Anju Bobby George
3) Neha Sanwal
4) Prajakta Sawant
5) None of these

34.As per the recent agreement between India and one other country the Indian Rupee
can be easily swapped with
1) Taka
2) Riel
3) Kyat
4) Yen
5) Rubble

35.The Government of India put a ban on export of which of the following commodities
at the price below the price of the same in domestic market?
1) Steel
2) Chemical Fertiliser
3) Pharma products
4) Electronic goods
5) None of these

36.India s Foreign Exchange Reserves declined sharply in recent past. What was the
main reason for the same?
1) Heavy demand of the same by foreign tourists
2) Import of wheat from Pakistan & South Korea
3) Appreciation of Rupee Value
4) Instability in coalition government in Centre
5) None of these

37.Which of the following is a public sector unit ?
1) TCS
2) ICICI Bank
3) TESCO
4) BHEL
5) All of these

38.Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation Business Meet was organised in September 2007 in
1) New Delhi
2) Beijing
3) Tokyo
4) London
5) Sydney

39.Who amongst the following was the Captain of the Indian hockey team who won Asia
Cup 2007 held in Chennai ?
1) Baichung Bhutia
2) Dilip Tirkey
3) Pankaj Advani
4) Manavjit Singh Sandhu
5) None of these

40.India launched which of the following satellites in September 2007?
1) EDUSAT
2) METSAT
3) CROSAT-IIB
4) INSAT-4CR
5) None of these

Answers
1. (2) 2. (2)
3. (3) 4. (2)
5. (5) 6. (1) 7. (5) 8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (5) 13. (3) 14. (3) 15. (2)
16. (2) 17. (5) 18. (2) 19. (5) 20. (2) 21. (5) 22. (4) 23. (5) 24. (5) 25. (1)
26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (3) 29. (1) 30. (2) 31. (1) 32. (3) 33. (2) 34. (5) 35. (1)
36. (3) 37. (4) 38. (5) 39. (5) 40. (4)

Dena Bank P.O. Examination (held on April 28, 2006)

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1 Fish
2) Horse
3) Dog
4) Lamb
5) Whale
Ans : (4) All the others are regular creatures, this is the young one.

2. What should come next in the following letter series?
B B C B C D B C D E B C D E F B C D E F G B C D E F G
1) H
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) None of these
Ans : (1) In each section starting from ‘B’, B/BC/BCD etc, the next letter is added, hence H after G.

3. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the third, the fourth, the eighth and the twelfth letters of the word BREAKTHROUGH, which of the following will be the second letter of that word? If no such word can be made, give ‘N’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be made, give ‘M’ as the answer.
1) R
2) E
3) A
4) M
5) N
Ans : (4) NEAR, HARE and RHEA.


4. In a certain code, SOLE is written as ‘$54#’ and DIME is written as ‘3%7#’. How is MODES written in that code?
1) 75#3$
2) 753#$
3) 753%$
4) 75%3$
5) None of these
Ans : (2)

5. The positions of the first and the fifth digits in the number 94861723 are interchanged. Similarly the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the third digit from the right end after the rearrangement?
1) 4
2) 8
3) 7
4) 1
5) None of these
Ans : (1)

6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) Leaf
2) Fruit
3) Sand
4) Rock
5) Brass
Ans : (5) Others occur in natural form, brass is an alloy of zinc and copper hence man-made.

7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) 91
2) 84
3) 114
4) 98
5) 105
Ans : (3) All the others are divisible by ‘7’.

8. Each of the consonants in the word TIED is changed to the next letter of the English alphabet and each of the vowels is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabet. How many meaningful English words can be made with the new set of letters using each letter only once in each word?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Ans : (1) UHDE. No regular word can be made although ‘HUED’ is a derivation.

9. Pointing to a girl, Mohan said “her mother is the only child of my grandfather”. How is Mohan related to that girl?
1) Brother
2) Cousin
3) Uncle
4) Data Inadequate
5) None of these
Ans : (1)

10. In a certain code PRACTISE is written as DRHSQSBD. How is COMPLETE written in that code?
1) DSDKBNLO
2) DSDKDPNQ
3) FUFMBNLO
4) DPNQDSDK
5) None of these
Ans : (2)

11. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FRIGHTEN, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Ans : (4) IN, GH and EI

12. How many such letters are there in the word CREATION each of which is as far away from the beginning in the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Ans : (2)

13. The consonants in the word CREATION are first arranged alphabetically followed by the vowels arranged alphabetically. Which of the following will be the third letter to the right of the sixth letter from the right end?
1) T
2) I
3) E
4) O
5) None of these
Ans : (3)

14. ‘Horse’ is related to ‘Stable’ in the same way as ‘Dog’ is related to:
1) Shed
2) Kennel
3) House
4) Pen
5) None of these
Ans : (2)

15. ‘Picture’ is related to ‘See’ in the same way as ‘Food’ is related to:
1) Cook
2) Watch
3) Eat
4) Heat
5) None of these
Ans : (3)

Q. 16-23. Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
R P A 5 N % T 7 B 4 # J E $ M 2 1 D * I 8 H 3 U @ 9 F W 6 © K

16. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a vowel but not immediately preceded by a number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Ans : (3) P and J

17. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is either immediately preceded by a vowel or immediately followed by a symbol but not both?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Ans : (3) N and D

18. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) M 1 $
2) W F ©
3) U 9 3
4) D I 1
5) 5 % A
Ans : (2)

19. Which of the following is exactly between 4 and I in the above arrangement?
1) M
2) $
3) 2
4) 1
5) None of these
Ans : (1)

20. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is not immediately followed by a number but immediately preceded by a consonant?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Ans : (3)

21. Which of the following is the fourth to the right of the seventeenth from the right end in the above arrangement?
1) #
2) *
3) D
4) J
5) None of these
Ans : (2)

22. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?
A % 7 4 E M 1 I H
1) UF6
2) U9W
3) UF©
4) 39W
5) None of these
Ans : (1)

23. Which of the following is the seventh to the left of the fifteenth from the left end in the above arrangement?
1) H
2) B
3) I
4) 7
5) None of these
Ans : (4)

Questions on Banking and Marketing

1. A prospect means

a] any customer who walks into the bank
b] an employee of the bank
c] a customer who is likely to be interested in bank’s product or service
d] a depositor of the bank’
e] a borrower of the bank

2. A lead means
a] a prospect who is more likely to avail of the Bank’s product
b] a political leader
c] a religious leader
d] a bank chairman
e] None of these

3. Innovation means
a] Compensation
b] inspiration
c] additional perquisites
d] implementing new ideas or new methods
e] None of these

4. A Call means
a] calling on friends
b] calling on bank employees
c] calling on prospective customers
d] to make telephone calls
e] calling on relatives

5. The Traditional Marketing style involves
a] Telemarketing
b] Digital Marketing
c] Indirect Marketing
d] Direct Marketing
e] All of these

6. Modern Method of Marketing include
a] Publicity on the net
b] Advertisement on the net
c] Soliciting business through e-mails
d] Tele marketing
e] All of these

7. A true marketing requires
a] Command and other mindset
b] Control Mindset
c] Passive mindset
d] Active mindset
e] None of these

8. Which of the following sentences is true?
a] Marketing is not required in a Buyers’ Market
b] Marketing is not required in a Sellers’s market
c] Marketing is not required due to competition
d] Marketing is not required due to liberalization
e] Marketing is not required due to globalisation

9. For effective marketing the salesmen should have which of these qualities?
a] Creativity
b] Team spirit
c] Motivation
d] Effective communication skills
e] All of these

10. Market information means
a] Knowledge of shops and bazaars
b] Knowledge of shopping malls
c] Knowledge of customer profile and product mix
d] knowledge of various languages
e] None of these

11. Market Research is needed for
a] checking the market area
b] checking the right product to be sold
c] making proper marketing decisions
d] deciding right time to sell
e] All of these

12. Which of the following statement is true
a] Marketing makes the company to go into loss due to higher expenses
b] Marketing is not required in profit making companies
c] Marketing sharpens the minds of the employees
d] Marketing is a time bound seasonal function
e] Marketing is a waste of time

13. Marketing plan helps in
a] better lead generation
b] better systems
c] better results
d] improved balance sheet
e] better customer service

14. If Marketing is done effectively which of the following is not required?
a] Advertisement
b] Publicity
c] Market Research
d] Market Segmentation
e] None of these

15. Motivation means
a] Inspiring employees to perform better
b] Better communication skills
c] Sales Coaching
d] Market Research
e] None of these

16. In a Selling Process in today’s world?
a] Only standard products are sold
b] No customization required
c] the seller need not have product knowledge
d] the seller should aim at customer satisfaction
e] only quantum of sales matters

17. Find the true statement
a] Marketing is a waste of the employees’ time
b] Marketing is not required in India due to its vast population
c] Marketing involves additional work
d] Marketing involves team work
e] Marketing is not required today due to IT advancement

18. A Target market is
a] entire country
b] entire city
c] entire globe
d] that which consists of customers who need the identified product
e] all of these

19. Sales forecasting involves
a] Sales Planning
b] Sales Pricing
c] Distribution Channels
d] Consumer tastes
e] All of these

20. Which of the following product is being sold under the brand name ZODIAC
a] Shirts
b] Ties
c] Both A and B
d] Liberty

21. SWIFT – cars are being manufactured by
a] DCM
b] Maruti
c] Premier Automobiles
d] Hyundai

22. With you all the way is the slogan of
a] Vodafone
b] SBI
c] ICICI
d] Raymonds

23. Which company used the slogan “The complete Man”
a] DCM
b] GRASIM
c] RAYMONDS
d] VIMAL

24. Which brand uses the slogan “Made for each other” for its cigarettes?
a] Cavenders
b] Four Square
c] Red & White
d] Wills

25. Cross Selling means
a] Identifying customer needs
b] matching the products to customer needs
c] convincing the customers of product benefits
d] responding to questions and objections of customers
e] all of these

SCHEDULE OF ON-LINE EXAMINATION ON 03/10/2009 - Employment Notice No. 03/2007, 01/2008(Centralised) & 02/2008- click here>>

SCHEDULE OF WRITTEN EXAMINATION TO BE HELD ON 11/10/2009 for Hindi Assistant Gr.-II- New - click here>>

Schedule of Written Examination to be held on 28.06.2009 for Cat. No.-22,23&24 - click here>>

Shedule of Written Examination to be held on 28.06.2009 for Cat. No.-44 - click here>>

1. What is the duration of Jammu and Kashmir state
assembly?
1)4 years 2) 5 years
4) 7 years 5) None of these

2. Who is Velupillai Prabhakaran?
1) The rebel leader of Myanmar
2) The deputy CM of Tamil Nadu
3) The supremo of LTTE
4) The foreign minister of Sri Lanka 5) None of these

3. What is Hamas?
1) A militant organisation active in Palestine
2) An ultra-nationalist party in Israel
3) A militant organisation active in Lebanon
4) The special anti-terrorists squad of Israeli ¦
5) None of these

4. LTTE stands for
1) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam
2) Liberation Team of Tamil Eelam
3) Lord of Tamil Territory of Eelam
4) Lord Tiger of Tamil Eelam 5) None of these

5. Somdev Devvarman’s sensational run at the Chennai
Open ended on Jan 11 as he lost in the final to the world
number 27 and third seed Marin Cilic of
l)Croatia , 2)Serbia 3) Bosnia
4) Macedonia 5) None of these

6. Why did Jharkhand chief minister Shibu Soren resign
recently?
1) He has been arrested in a murder case.
2) He lost the Lok Sabha election.
3) Congress and RJD withdrew support.
4) His exit follows his defeat in the Tamar by-election.
5) None of these

7. Which of the following clauses of SEBI is associated
with corporate governance?
1)41 2)42 3)49 4)52 5) None of these

8. Name the party which has emerged as the single largest
as a result of the just-concluded elections in Jammu and
Kashmir which threw up a hung assembly.
1) Congress 2) National Conference
3) People’s Democratic Party 4) B JP
5) None of these

9. Tuanku Jaafar Tuanku Abdul Rahman, who died re¬
cently, was the former king and longest serving ruler of
1) Indonesia 2) Thailand 3) Malaysia
4) Brunei 5) None of these

10. The government aprroved the maximum number of FDI proposals in 2008for any calendar year. The Cabinet gave the nod to 518 items while the cabinet committee on economic Affairs approved
1)120 1 254 3)362
4)469 5 None of these

11. Name the tainted IAS officer who was once a poster boy of cool efficiency and celebrated by Time magazine as a man of the year and who died of pancreatic cancer recently.
1) Rajiv Goswami 2) Gautam Gosw mi
3) Kunal kishore. 4) Shailesh Kunar
5) None of these

12. What is Pricewaterhouse Coopers (PwC)?
l)Auditing firm 2) Credit rating agency
3) Law consultancy firm 4) Investment bank
5) None of these

13. Manchester United star Cristiano Ronald was named FIFA World Footballer of the Year for 2008 .He belongs to
l)Brazil 2) Argentina 3)Portugese 4)Britain 5) None of these

14. After Satyam’s fall from grace follow revelations World Bank banning India’s third largest software services firm………. for following corrupt practices tobag deals. It had not disclosed the four-year ban imposed on it in July 2007 to investors.
1)HCL 2)Infosys 3)Wipro
4) HP 5) None of these

15. It was Slumdog shining all the way at Beverly hills the film winning four Golden Globe awards. THE HAUL HAD A particularly sweet note for India: music COMPOSER ………………became the first Indian to win the 66 year old prize
1) Shankar, Ehsaan Loy 2) Anu Malik
3)ARRahman 4) Maya Govind
5) None of these

16. Just nine-and-a-half years old, created a record of sorts when he became one of the youngest players to outclass a Grandmaster. He accounted GM Nurlan Ibrayev of Kazakhstan on the opening day of the 7th Parsvnath International Open Chess tournament. Before him, VK Sindhu, also nine at that time had defeated Macedonian GM Toni Naidoski in 2000
l)HetulShah 2) VK Sindhu
3) Parimarjan Negi 4) Amit Shah
5) None of these

ANSWERS
1) 3 2) 3 3)1 4)1 5)1
6)4 7)3 8)2 9)3 10) 2
11)2 12)1 13)3 14)3 15)3
16)1

Results Announced for

Chartered Accountant - Final (New Course Results) 2009

Pls click here to view>>

Corporation Bank Recruitment for Clerks, Probationary Officers, Specialist Officers

Eligible Candidates are required to apply only online through our website www.corpbank.in and no other means/mode of application will be acceptable.

Candidates are to pay the application fee/postal charges in cash "at any of the branches of Corporation Bank". After payment the candidate must collect the payment receipt, the particulars there of are to be quoted in the online application form and the original receipt must be sent along with the printout of computer generated online application form.

Application registration on our website will be open from 18/08/2009 to 18/09/2009.

After applying online, the candidate is required to download the system generated Print-out of the application. This system generated printout of the application should be signed by the candidate and sent along with the original payment receipt.

Click here>> to Apply

50 COMMON INTERVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS



1. Tell me about yourself?

Ans : The most often asked question in interviews. You need to have a short statement prepared in your mind. Be careful that it does not sound rehearsed. Limit it to work-related items unless instructed otherwise. Talk about things you have done and jobs you have held that relate to the position you are interviewing for. Start with the item farthest back and work up to the present.

2. Why did you leave your last job?

Ans: Stay positive regardless of the circumstances. Never refer to a majorproblem with management and never speak ill of supervisors, co-workers or the organization. If you do, you will be the one looking bad. Keep smiling and talk about leaving for a positive reason such as an opportunity, a chance to do something special or other forward-looking reasons.

3. What experience do you have in this field?

Ans: Speak about specifics that relate to the position you are applying for. If you do not have specific experience, get as close as you can.

4. Do you consider yourself successful?

Ans:You should always answer yes and briefly explain why. A good explanation is that you have set goals, and you have met some and are on track to achieve the others.

5. What do co-workers say about you?

Ans: Be prepared with a quote or two from co-workers. Either a specific statement or a paraphrase will work. Jill Clark, a co-worker at Smith Company, always said I was the hardest workers she had ever known. It is as powerful as Jill having said it at the interview herself.

6. What do you know about this organization?

This question is one reason to do some research on the organization before the interview. Find out where they have been and where they are going. What are the current issues and who are the major players?

7.. What have you done to improve your knowledge in the last year?

Try to include improvement activities that relate to the job. A wide variety of activities can be mentioned as positive self-improvement. Have some good ones handy to mention.

8. Are you applying for other jobs?

Be honest but do not spend a lot of time in this area. Keep the focuson this job and what you can do for this organization. Anything else is a distraction.

9. Why do you want to work for this organization?

This may take some thought and certainly, should be based on the research you have done on the organization. Sincerity is extremely important here and will easily be sensed. Relate it to your long-term career goals.

10. Do you know anyone who works for us?

Be aware of the policy on relatives working for the organization. This can affect your answer even though they asked about friends not relatives. Be careful to mention a friend only if they are well thought of.

11. What is your Expected Salary?

A loaded question. A nasty little game that you will probably lose if you answer first. So, do not answer it. Instead, say something like, That's a tough question. Can you tell me the range for this position? In most cases, the interviewer, taken off guard, will tell you. If not, say that it can depend on the details of the job. Then give a wide range.

12. Are you a team player?

You are, of course, a team player. Be sure to have examples ready. Specifics that show you often perform for the good of the team rather than for yourself are good evidence of your team attitude. Do not brag, just say it in a matter-of-fact tone. This is a key point..

13. How long would you expect to work for us if hired?

Specifics here are not good. Something like this should work: I'd like it to be a long time. Or As long as we both feel I'm doing a good job.

14. Have you ever had to fire anyone?

How did you feel about that? This is serious. Do not make light of it or in any way seem like you like to fire people. At the same time, you will do it when it is the right thing to do. When it comes to the organization versus the individual who has created a harmful situation, you will protect the organization. Remember firing is not the same as layoff or reduction in force.

15. What is your philosophy towards work?

The interviewer is not looking for a long or flowery dissertation here. Do you have strong feelings that the job gets done? Yes. That's the type of answer that works best here. Short and positive, showing a benefit to the organization.

16. If you had enough money to retire right now, would you?

Answer yes if you would. But since you need to work, this is the type of work you prefer. Do not say yes if you do not mean it.

17. Have you ever been asked to leave a position?

If you have not, say no. If you have, be honest, brief and avoid saying negative things about the people or organization involved.

18. Explain how you would be an asset to this organization ?

You should be anxious for this question. It gives you a chance to highlight your best points as they relate to the position being discussed. Give a little advance thought to this relationship. .

19. Why should we hire you?

Point out how your assets meet what the organization needs. Do not mention any other candidates to make a comparison..

20. Tell me about a suggestion you have made ?

Have a good one ready. Be sure and use a suggestion that was accepted and was then considered successful. One related to the type of work applied for is a real plus.

21. What irritates you about co-workers?

This is a trap question. Think real hard but fail to come up with anything that irritates you. A short statement that you seem to get along with folks is great.

22. What is your greatest strength?

Numerous answers are good, just stay positive. A few good examples: Your ability to prioritize, Your problem-solving skills, Your ability to work under pressure, Your ability to focus on projects, Your professional expertise, Your leadership skills, Your positive attitude

23. Tell me about your dream job ?

Stay away from a specific job. You cannot win. If you say the job you are contending for is it, you strain credibility. If you say another job is it, you plant the suspicion that you will be dissatisfied with this position if hired. The best is to stay genetic and say something like: A job where I love the work, like the people, can contribute andcan't wait to get to work.

24. Why do you think you would do well at this job?

Give several reasons and include skills, experience and interest.

25. What are you looking for in a job?

See answer # 23

26. What kind of person would you refuse to work with?

Do not be trivial. It would take disloyalty to the organization, violence or lawbreaking to get you to object. Minor objections will label you as a whiner.

27. What is more important to you: the money or the work?

Money is always important, but the work is the most important. There is no better answer.

28. What would your previous supervisor say your strongest point is?

There are numerous good possibilities: Loyalty, Energy, Positive attitude, Leadership, Team player, Expertise,Initiativ e, Patience, Hard work, Creativity, Problem solver

29. Tell me about a problem you had with a supervisor?

Biggest trap of all. This is a test to see if you will speak ill of your boss. If you fall for it and tell about a problem with a former boss, you may well below the interview right there. Stay positive and develop a poor memory about any trouble with a supervisor.

30. What has disappointed you about a job?

Don't get trivial or negative. Safe areas are few but can include: Not enough of a challenge. You were laid off in a reduction Company did not win a contract, which would have given you more responsibility.

31. Tell me about your ability to work under pressure.

You may say that you thrive under certain types of pressure. Give an example that relates to the type of position applied for.

32. Do your skills match this job or another job more closely?

Probably this one. Do not give fuel to the suspicion that you may want another job more than this one.

33. What motivates you to do your best on the job?

This is a personal trait that only you can say, but good examples are: Challenge, Achievement, Recognition

34. Are you willing to work overtime? Nights? Weekends?

This is up to you. Be totally honest.

35. How would you know you were successful on this job?

Several ways are good measures: You set high standards for yourself and meet them. Your outcomes are a success. Your boss tell you that you are successful

36. Would you be willing to relocate if required?

You should be clear on this with your family prior to the interview if you think there is a chance it may come up. Do not say yes just to get the job if the real answer is no. This can create a lot of problems later on in your career. Be honest at this point and save yourself future grief.

37. Are you willing to put the interests of the organization ahead of your own?

This is a straight loyalty and dedication question. Do not worry about the deep ethical and philosophical implications. Just say yes.

38. Describe your management style ?

Try to avoid labels. Some of the more common labels, like progressive, salesman or consensus, can have several meanings or descriptions depending on which management expert you listen to. The situational style is safe, because it says you will manage according to the situation, instead of one size fits all.

39. What have you learned from mistakes on the job?

Here you have to come up with something or you strain credibility. Make it small, well intentioned mistake with a positive lesson learned. An example would be working too far ahead of colleagues on a project and thus throwing coordination off.

40. Do you have any blind spots?

Trick question. If you know about blind spots, they are no longer blind spots. Do not reveal any personal areas of concern here. Let them do their own discovery on your bad points. Do not hand it to them.

41. If you were hiring a person for this job, what would you look for?

Be careful to mention traits that are needed and that you have.

42. Do you think you are overqualified for this position?

Regardless of your qualifications, state that you are very well qualified for the position.

43. How do you propose to compensate for your lack of experience?

First, if you have experience that the interviewer does not know about, bring that up: Then, point out (if true) that you are a hard working quick learner.

44. What qualities do you look for in a boss?

Be generic and positive. Safe qualities are knowledgeable, a sense of humor, fair, loyal to subordinates and holder of high standards. All bosses think they have these traits.

45. Tell me about a time when you helped resolve a dispute ?

between others. Pick a specific incident. Concentrate on your problem solving technique and not the dispute you settled.

46. What position do you prefer on a team working on a project?

Be honest. If you are comfortable in different roles, point that out.

47. Describe your work ethic ?

Emphasize benefits to the organization. Things like, determination to get the job done and work hard but enjoy your work are good.

48. What has been your biggest professional disappointment?

Be sure that you refer to something that was beyond your control. Show acceptance and no negative feelings.

49. Tell me about the most fun you have had on the job.

Talk about having fun by accomplishing something for the organization.

50. Do you have any questions for me?

Always have some questions prepared. Questions prepared where you will be an asset to the organization are good. How soon will I be able to be productive? and What type of projects will I be able to assist on? are examples.

State Bank Of India (SBI) invites online applications for recruitment of 11000 Clerks

Date of Exam : Nov 08 and 15, 2009

Age Limit (as on October 01, 2009): 18-28 years [relaxation as per rules]

Pay Scale : Rs.4410-13210

Number of Posts : 11000 (Gen: 5612, SC: 1750, ST: 1082, OBC: 2556)

Online Application Starts : August 01, 2009

Online Application Ends : September 15, 2009

For Online Applications click here>>

Indo-US Seminar
on
Indo-US Seminar
Excellence: A US Model for India
10 AUGUST 2009

A seminar for faculty members,
researchers and entrepreneurs in all
disciplines

Organized by
Centre for International Affairs
&
Department of Manufacturing
Engineering
Anna University Chennai
In collaboration with
University of Nebraska-Lincoln
United States of America

For More Information Click here>>

General Awareness Question papers with Answers

1. Name the well-know Indian writer based in Kerala who died at the age of
75 recently.
l)Arbindo Das 2)Kamala Das 3)Lavleen Singh
4) Khushwant Singh 5) None of these

2. Who has taken over as the new Air Force Chief?
l)PV Naik 2)Nirmal Verma 3) Sureesh Mehta 4)PV Borbora
5) None of these

3. Name, the last remaining survivor of the Titanic who died at a care home
in England recently.
1) David Thorpe 2) Christina Rousseau
3) Belina Mandelson 4) Milivina Dean
5) None of these

4. Which party has demanded that the Central schemes be scrapped and the
funds allocated for these schemes be transferred to the States so that they
could use them for programmes relevant to their needs?
1)BJP 2)CPI(M) 3)JD(U)
4)TMC 5) None of these

5. Which state has won the overall championship (based on the number of
gold medals) in the SS Music-National youth athletics championships held in
Madurai? l)TamilNadu 2)Punjab 3)UP
4) Kerala 5) None of these

6. The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) Bill
that will be re-introduced in Parliament proposes to let foreign players hold
up to
_________per cent stake in Indian pension fund
companies, similar to the quantum allowed in insurance companies. The
PFRDA Bill that lapsed following the dissolution of the fourteenth Lok Sabha
on May 18 did not allow foreign direct investment (FDI) in pension funds.
1)10 2)26 3)49
4)74 5) None of these

7. With the military operation against the Taliban in the restive Swat valley
entering its final phase, the Pakistan government has raised the bounty for
Maulana Fazlullah, the
Taliban leader notorious for his venomous sermons on FM radio, 10 times to
1) 20 million rupees 2) 35 million rupees
3)50 million rupees 4) 60 million rupees
5) None of these

8. Name the film actor who reacted to racial attacks on Indian students in
Australia by rejecting an honorary doctorate offered to him by the
Queensland University of Technology, Brisbane.
l)Shyam Benegal 2)Om Puri 3)Nasiruddin Shah 4) Amitabh Bachchan
5) None of these

9. Who has been appointed as the new deputy chief minister of Tamil
Nadu?
l)KAnbazhagan 2) MK Stalin
3) CK Annadurai 4) Murasoli Maran 5) None of these

10. Bharti Wal-Mart Private Limited, the joint venture between Bharti
Enterprises and US-based retail giant Wal-Mart Stores for cash-and-carry and
back-end supply chain management operations in India, has opened its first
store in
1) Hyderabad 2) Lucknow 3) Delhi
4) Amritsar 5) None of these

11. Aung San Suu Kyi is associated with
1) Japan 2) Tibet 3) North Korea
4) South Korea 5) None of these

12. Name the country whose passenger aircraft disappeared and crashed
over the Atlantic Ocean, killing more than 100 persons.
1) Brazil 2) Germany 3) France
4)Britan 5) None of these

13. Which company has filed for bankruptcy protection as part of the Obama
administration's plan to shrink the automaker to a sustainable size?
1) General Motors 2)Volkswagen
3) Honda Motors 4)Ford 5) None of these

14. Name the Punjab National Bank Chairman and Managing Director who
has been elected Chairman of the Indian Banks' Association (DBA) for
2009-10.
l)TSNarayanasami 2) KC Chakraborry 3)MVNair
4)OP Bhatt 5) None of these

15. Who has been elected as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
l)KariaMunda 2)Meera Kumar 3)Sumitra Mahajan
4) Gurudas Dasgupta 5) None of these

16. Name the first Dalit speaker of the Lok Sabha.
l)Meera Kumar 2)KariaMunda 3)GMC Balyogi
4)Jagjivan Ram 5) None of these

17. Which country has been named the most peaceful country on earth in the
annual Global Peace Index? The index is based on the ranking of 144 nations
on the basis of how peaceful they are.
1) Norway 2) Sweden 3)New Zealand
4) Switzerland 5) None of these

18. With Left flag out of sight, the government is planning a big-bang
disinvestment in the state-owned PSUs. It plans to raise over________in
2009-10, not only to reduce fiscal deficit but also for expansion of public sector
enterprises.
1) Rs 10,000 cr .2) Rs 15,000 cr 3) Rs 20,000 cr 4) Rs 25.000 cr
5) None of these

19. World Environment Day is observed on
1) May 21 2) June 1 3) June 3
4) June 5 5) None of these

20. Which of the following statements are true about India-MERCOSUR
preferential trade agreement (PTA), which has come into effect from June 1?
A. The major product groups covered in the offer are food preparations,
organic chemicals, pharmaceuticals, essential oils, plastics, rubber and rubber
products, tools and implements, machinery items, electrical machinery and
equipment.
B. The major sectors covered in the offer list of India are meat and meat
products, inorganic chemicals, organic chemicals, dyes and pigments, raw
hides and skins, leather articles, wool, cotton yarn, glass and glassware,
articles of iron and steel, machinery items, electrical machinery and
equipment, optical, photographic apparatus.
C. MERCOSUR is a trading bloc in South America region comprising
Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay and Uruguay.
D. It was formed in 1991 with the objective of free movement of goods,
services, capital and people and became a customs union in January 1995.
l)OnlyA,B&C 2)OnlyB,C&D 3)OnlyA,C&D
4)OnlyC&D 5) All the abovs

21. Name the American author who has won this year's Orange Prize for
Fiction for her novel Home, which tells the story of a prodigal son as he
returns home to make
peace with his past.
1) Manju Kapoor 2) Marilynne Robinson
3) Rose Tremain 4) Zadie Smith
5) None of these

22. SBI Life Insurance has launched group micro-insurance
policy,________, in the Norfh-Eastern region. The
policy was earlier launched in West Bengal, Orissa and Tamil Nadu. The
policy would provide life cover as well as maturity benefits at affordable rates
to members of self-help groups. For a five-year term, the premium payable
would be Rs 361.
1) Manav Shakti 2) GrameenShakti 3) GrameenUjala
4)GrameenVikas 5) None of these

23. When was RBI established?
1)1934 2)1935 3)1949 4)1955 5) None of these

24. The National Investigation Agency(NIA) got its first investigative brief.
The Centre directed the NIA to take over the investigation in two cases
related to militant activities in
1) J ammu and Kashmir 2) Assam 3) Chhattisgarh
4) Orissa 5) None of these

25. Which state is set to issue 'water cards' to impose water rationing so that
musclemen don't get away with the lion's share of the water supplied through
tankers? Each citizen will get 50 litres of water per day on the basis of the
card.
1) Tamil Nadu 2) Chhattisgarh 3) Madhya Pradesh
4) Orissa 5) None of these

26. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) plans to engage self-help groups (SHGs)
and primary agriculture credit societies (PACS) as business correspondents
(BCs) to ensure greater banking penetration in the country's interior rural belt.
The banking regulator has decided to make use of the banking correspondent
model extensively to provide banking facility to some________
unbanked villages of population in excess of 2,000.
1)1 lakh 2)31akh 3) 5 lakh
4) 7 lakh 5) None of these

27. Seventeen-year-old Khagendra Thapa Magar of ________, 50 cm tall, is
set to register his name in the Guinness Book of World Records as the shortest
person in the world.
1) Bhutan 2) Nepal 3) Sri Lanka
4) Tibet 5) None of these

28. Beleaguered Satyam Computer announced________
crore profit for the Oct-Dec quarter 2008, demonstrating it was down but not
out and held out promise of a comeback under new owner Mahindras.
l)Rs80er 2)Rsl20cr 3)Rsl60cr
4) Rs 190 cr 5) None of these

29. UPA government has adopted an ambitious target of making India slumfree
in________with President Pratibha Patil announcing the launch of a
special housing scheme for the urban poor and slum-dwellers. Patil unveiled
the housing scheme—Rajiv Gandhi Awas Yojana—on the lines of the Indira
Awas Yojana being implemented in the rural areas.
1)1 year 2) 2 years 3) 5 years
4) 10 years 5) None of these

30. Who has been appointed Acting Chairperson of the National Human
Rights Commission (NHRC) after Justice S Rajendra Babu retired as
Chairman on May 31?
1) Justice GP Mathur 2) Justice BN Sri krishna
3) Justice AM Ahmadi 4) Justice Aftab Alam
5) None of these

31. A day after Madhesi Janadhikar Forum's parliamentary leader Brjay
Kumar Gachhedar was sworn in as Deputy Prime Minister, party Chairman
Upendra Yadav announced withdrawal of support to the coalition
government led by CPN (UML). Identify the country.
1) Mauritius 2) Fiji 3) Surinam
4) Sri Lanka 5) None of these

32. A full Bench of the Lahore High Court has ordered the release
of________, the chief of the Jamaat-ud-Dawa, known as a front organisation of
the Lashkar-e-Taiba. The LeT has been blamed for the Nov 2008 Mumbai
attacks, among other strikes.
1) Hafiz Saeed. 2) Masood Azhar 3) Dawood Ibrahim
4) Syed Salahuddin 5) None of these

33. In a major embarrassment to the Nationalist Congress Party, its Member
of Parliament________was arrested by the CBI for his alleged involvement in
the murder of his cousin and Congress leader Pawanraje Nimbalkair.
1) JagjitsinhPatil 2)DevisinhPatil 3) PadamsinPatil
4) Arjunsinh Patil 5) None of these

34. Name the unrepentant Watergate 'burglar' whose arrest at the
Democratic National Committee headquarters led tot he resignation of
President Richard Nixon in 1974 and who has died of lung cancer.
1) Bernard Leon Barker 2) Roger Nassif
3) J ohan Raum 4) Philip Mathew Zandy 5) None of these

35. Rogar Federer gloriously completed a career Grand Slam by capturing a
record-equalling 14th major with a 6-1, 7-6(1), 6-4 win over Robin Soderling in
the
1) Australian Open 2) French Open 3) US Open
4) Wimbledon 5) None of these

36. Who has been appointed as the new navy chief of India?
1) Sureesh Mehta 2) Nirmal Kumar Verma
3) Pradeep Vasant Nayak 4) Arun Prakash 5) None of these

37. India's largest free-trade zone, the 10,000-hectare Mumbai Special
Economic Zone (MSEZ), is in________ district of Maharashtra.
1) Pune 2) Aurangabad 3) Raigad
4) Satara 5) None of these

38. Who defeated DinaraSafma 6-4, 6-2 in an all-Russian final of the French
Open to take away her second grand Slam title?
1) Svetlana Kuznetsova 2) Venus Williams
3) Serena Williams 4) Elena Dementieva 5) None of these

39. Leander Paeswon his ninth Grand Slam title when he and his partner
Lukas Dlouhy overcame a first-set lapse to win the French Open men's
doubles. Paes-Dlouhy won 3-6, 6-3,6-2 against the South African-Belgian pair
of Wesley Moodie and Dick Norman. Lukas Dlouhy belongs to
1) Russia 2) Czech Republic 3) Slovakia
4) Sweden 5) None of these

40. Name the chairman of a faction of the insurgent group Dima Halam
Daoga, popularly known as Black Widow, who has been arrested in
Bangalore.
l)ArbindRajkhowa 2)PareshBarua
3) Jewel Gorlosa 4) Vijay Harangkhwal 5) None of these

41. In which year was The Imperial Bank of India established by merging the
Presidency Banks of Calcutta, Madras and Bombay?
1)1806 2)1921 3)1935 4)1949 5) None of these

42. In which year was the Imperial Bank of India renamed as the State Bank
of India?
1)1921 2)1935 3)1949 4)1955 5) None of these

43. How many banks were nationalised in 1969?
1)10 2)14 3)19 4)6 5) None of these,

44. Which among the following banks was not nationalised in 1969 or 1980?
1) Punjab National Bank 2) Canara Bank
3) Corporation Bank 4)IDBIBank 5) Allahabad Bank

45. Which of the following is not a subsidiary of the SB1?
1) State Bank of Patiala 2) State Bank of Indore
3) State Bank of Travancore 4) State Bank of Hyderabad
5) Bank of Maharashtra

46. In which year did India's economic liberalisation start?
1)1984 2)1991 3)1999 4)2004 5) None of these

47. Which of the following is not a feature of open economy?
1) Non-interference by govt 2) Competition
3) Demand and Supply 4) Consumers' benefit 5) Administered price

48. Which of the following is the most advocating agency for economic
globalisation?
l)WTO 2) World Bank 3) IMF
4)EU 5} None of these

49. Which of the following is the core of the Basel-II norms?
1) Non-Performing Assets 2) Capital Adequacy Ratio
3) Prime Lending Rate 4) Priority Sector Lending 5) None of these

50. The_________ armed with a $ 20-million grant from Bill & Melinda Gates
Foundation, announced to launch a financial scheme for helping farmers hit
by the economic crisis in developing nations, including India.
1)TMF 2) World Bank 3)ADB
4) SAARC 5) None of these

Answers
1)2 2)1 3)4 4)3 5)2
6)2 7)3 8)4 9)2 10)4
11)5(Myanmar)
12)3 13)1 14)2 15)2
16)3 17)3 18)4 19)4 20)5
21)5 22)2 23)2 24)2 25)3
26)1 27)2 28)3 29)3 30)1
31)Nepal
32)1 33)3 34)1 35)2
36)2 37)3 38)1 39)2 40)3
41)2 42)4 43)2 44)4 45)5
46)2 47)5 48)1 49)2 50)2

GENERAL AWARENESS

1. In economic field, very often, the term ?Price
Index? is used. If the Price Index in May 1985 was 355,
then what does it mean?
A) The prices on the average were more than three and
a half times as much.
B) The prices were 255 per cent higher than what they
were in 1970-71 (the earlier base year).
C) As compared to the earlier base year, May 1985 was
full of various commodities and the supply was 300 times
better than the earlier years.
Which of these statements is/are true ?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A & B
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 2 ) Only B

2. Various measures are used by the State to control
the inflation. These can be
A) Price control
B) Monetary measures
C) Fiscal measures
Which of these is/are known as the suppressed inflation ?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) A & B both
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) A & B both

3. The High Court of which of the following States set
aside the decision of the State Government to overturn the
creation of nine districts and four commissioner divisions
(created by the earlier Government) ?
(1) Rajasthan
(2) Orissa
(3) Himachal Pradesh
(4) Tamil Nadu
(5) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: ( 2 ) Orissa

4. The Government of India recently issued norms for
Indian Depository Receipts (IDRs). Which of the following
is NOT TRUE in this regard ?
(1) The companies would have a pre-issue paid
up capital and free reserves of at least 500 million US $.
(2) Average turnover of the company should be
500 million US $.
(3) The norm of average turnover of 500 million
US $ should be during the three preceding years of
financial performance.
(4) The company should have declared a dividend
of not less than 10% during the last five years.
(5) All such companies need prior nod of SEBI.
Ans: ( 4 ) The company should have declared a
dividend of not less than 10% during the last five years.

5. Who among the following has issued various
accounting standards to be followed by the various
companies in India?
(1) Registrar of Companies
(2) Ministry of Finance, Government of India
(3) Accounting Standards Board of ICAI
(4) Indian Bureau of Standards
(5) World Trade Organisation (WTO)
Ans: ( 4 ) Indian Bureau of Standards

6. How much amount an individual resident can now
borrow from the close relatives residing outside India (As
per new RBI norms)?
(1) US $ 100000 only or its equivalent
(2) US $ 150000 only or its equivalent
(3) US $ 200000 only or its equivalent
(4) US $ 250000 only or its equivalent
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 3 ) US $ 200000 only or its equivalent

7. Growth of credit in agriculture, despite its
priority sector status, has remained a persistent problem
in the economy. According to the RBI, domestic banks must
allocate what percent of their advances to the agricultural
sector (including direct and indirect finances)?
(1) 8%
(2) 12%
(3) 15%
(4) 18%
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these

8. In July 2003, the banks were asked to reduce their
lending rate to agricultural credit to he extent of ? (for
loans below Rs. 50,000).
(1) 6.5%
(2) 7.5%
(3) 9%
(4) 10%
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) 6.5%

9. In the financial transaction of the Government, we
often hear a term ?Deficit Financing?. Deficit Financing
is
A) Practised whenever Government expenditure exceeds
the receipts from the public.
B) That part of the Government expenditure which is
met by drawing down the cash balance of the Government held
in RBI or in State treasuries.
C) That part of the Government expenditure which is
required to be compensated by printing new notes/supply of
fresh currency notes in the market.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) Only A
(2) Only A & B
(3) Only C
(4) Only B
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 3 ) Only C

10. In commercial and trade world, very often, we hear
a term ?Free Trade?. What does it really mean?
A) It means no restriction on the movement of goods
between two countries or a group of countries.
B) It means no custom duty or any other tax or duty on
the goods supplied to each other by the countries.
C) It means exchange of goods between the countries to
overcome shortage of particular type of goods.
D) It means a particular nation is allowed to sell its
goods all over the world without any restriction on the
quantity.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B & C
(3) Only C & D
(4) Only C & A
(5) Only D
Ans: ( 2 ) Only B & C

11. Which of the following statements is/are correct
pertaining to the problems with agricultural credit?
A) Private sector banks are not given any target of
agricultural lending. Hence, they do not lend anything to
farmers.
B) Majority of farmers are not able to afford the cost
of borrowing or not able to guarantee their loan from the
banks.
C) Most of the Co-operative Banks are defunct. Hence,
they are not lending to the farmers.
Which of these statements is/are true?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only A & B
(4) Only C
(5) Only B & C
Ans: ( 1 ) Only A

12. India?s population is likely to reach at which
level during 2026 A.D. ?
(1) 1 billion
(2) 1.2 billion
(3) 1.4 billion
(4) 1.6 billion
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) 1 billion

13. The Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) is
established with ?
(1) NABARD
(2) RBI
(3) SBI
(4) ICICI Bank
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 3 ) SBI

14. Why was the name of B.K. Chaturvedi recently in the
news?
(1) He has taken over as the India?s High
Commissioner to U.K.
(2) He will be the new Cabinet Secretary in the
Union Government.
(3) He will be the new Deputy Speaker of the
Lok Sabha
(4) He will be our permanent representative in
the UNO
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) He will be our permanent
representative in the UNO

15. India is set to have a revised or new series of the
Index of Wholesale Price (WPI) very soon, as the base year
will now be
(1) 1990-91
(2) 1985-86
(3) 1989-90
(4) 1993-94
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 2 ) 1985-86

16. The farm income insurance scheme announced by the
Union Government is presently being run in how many
districts ?
(1) 20
(2) 50
(3) 100
(4) 150
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) 20

17. As per the reports of the Census 2001, the Prime
reason for male migration to urban areas has been
employment and business. But what has been the reason of
migration of the young females to urban areas ?
A) Marriage
B) Educational Purposes
C) Job Opportunities
Which of these is/are the correct reasons(s)?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A & B
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 3 ) Only C

18. As per the migratory trend seen in the recent past,
the outflow of people from which of the following States is
the maximum ?
(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Bihar
(3) Madhya Pradesh
(4) Kerala
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) Uttar Pradesh

19. Which of the following is likely to convert itself
into a bank ?
(1) SIDBI
(2) ECGC
(3) IDFC
(4) SEBI
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) SIDBI

20. As per the census 2001, the number of million plus
cities in India is
(1) 20
(2) 24
(3) 35
(4) 42
(5) 52
Ans: ( 2 ) 24

21. As per the reports from the Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare, the three important causes of mortality in
India are
(1) Tuberculosis, Typhoid and Malaria
(2) Malaria, Polio, Cancer
(3) Cancer, Heart ailments, Polio
(4) Polio, Malaria, Heart ailments
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) Polio, Malaria, Heart ailments

22. As per the recent decision taken by the Government
of India, now the students after passing which of the
following examinations are not required to have a
stamp ?Emigration check required? on their passports?
(1) MBA from IIMs or any other university
(2) B.E. or B.Tech. degree
(3) Class XII
(4) Medical degree in Ayurved System
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) Medical degree in Ayurved System

23. About 35 multistate Co-operative Banks are likely
to come under the Banking Regulation Act as the Government
is going to issue an ordinance to that effect in days to
come. It was required to be done as
A) Co-operative Banks are in bad shape and their
restructuring is very much needed.
B) RBI recommended that Government should issue an
ordinance to this effect.
C) The Supreme Court of India has issued an order
which says that RBI does not have authority to issue
licences to multistate Co-operative Banks.
Which of these statements is/are true?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A & C
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these

24. Which of the following schemes/programmes is/are
now part of the ?Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rojgar Yozana?
(SJSRY) ?
A) Nehru Rozgar Yojana (NRY)
B) Urban Basic Service for the Poor (UBSP)
C) Prime Minister?s Integrated Urban Poverty
Eradication Programme (PMIUPEP)
D) India Mahila Yojana
Choose the correct alternative :
(1) Only A
(2) Only A & B
(3) Only A & D
(4) Only D
(5) Only A, B & C
Ans: ( 5 ) Only A, B & C

25. Which of the following is the aim of the ?Jan
Shree Bima Yojana? of the Union Government launched in 2000?
(1) To provide food security to the rural poor.
(2) To provide Insurance Security to the people
living below poverty line
(3) To provide Insurance cover to the women
(4) To provide Insurance cover to the children
whose parents died in the earthquake in Bhuj a few years
back
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these

26. Which of the following is the objective of the
International Monetary Fund (IMF) ?
A) To minimize imbalances in quantum and duration of
the international trade.
B) To provide subsidy to the third world countries so
that they may complete with developed nations.
C) To ensure exchange rate stability.
Which of these objectives is correct ?
(1) Only A
(2) Only A & B
(3) Only B
(4) Only A & C
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) Only A

27. The performance of Public Sector Banks during the
year 2003-04 has been
A) Slightly lower than during 2002-03
B) Much better than the year 2002-03 for all PSBs
C) Same as it was in the year 2002-03
D) Slightly better for some banks like SBI and its
Associates.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only A & D
(4) Only D
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these

28. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh recently in a meeting
expressed his desire that an early and smooth Value Added
Tax (VAT) is very much needed in the country. How the
introduction of VAT will be helpful for a country like
India?
A) VAT will avoid cascading of taxes.
B) VAT is expected to enhance revenues in the medium
term.
C) Some State Governments may have to lose a
substantial amount of Sales Tax as the Centre will have a
greater share in taxes, but the same will be compensated
later on by providing subsidies on certain items.
Which of these statements is/are true?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only A & B
(4) Only C
(5) A, B and C
Ans: ( 1 ) Only A

29. Which of the following statements(s) is/are true
about the Member of Parliament Local Area Development
Scheme (MPLADS) ?
A) The scheme was introduced in the year 1977.
B) Under the scheme, every MP can spend Rs. 2 crore
every year on some developmental activity in his/her area.
C) Around 6.8 lakh works were recommended by the MPs
during the past years out of which about 4.5 lakh were
completed by the year 2002.
(1) Only A
(2) Only A & B
(3) Only B
(4) Only B & C
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 3 ) Only B

30. According to the World Trade Organisation (WTO),
Anti Dumping measures can be imposed by a country in which
of the following situations ?
A) When hazardous nuclear and radioactive waste is
dumped in the sea or coastal area of a country by some
other nation.
B) When some products that have been dumped in the
market in such a way that they cause material injury to
domestic industry.
C) When some substandard agricultural products are
dispatched to a country to meet the balance of payment
requirements.
(1) Only A
(2) Only C
(3) Only B
(4) Only A & B
(5) Only B & C
Ans: ( 5 ) Only B & C

31. Which of the following is the one major function of
the finance Commission set up by the Union Government once
every five years ?
A) To determine the share of the States and the Centre
out of the Tax receipts.
B) To determine the minimum support prices of all
major agricultural commodities.
C) To introduce the new taxes to be levied by the
State and the Union governments.
(1) Only A & B
(2) Only B & C
(3) Only B
(4) Only C
(5) Only A
Ans: ( 5 ) Only A

32. Which of the following States is adjudged superior
to most State in India in human development?
(1) Tamil Nadu
(2) Gujarat
(3) Maharashtra
(4) Karnataka
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these

33. Which of the following statement(s) about
industrial output of India during the recent past is/are
true (in last few months)?
A) Industrial output surges 9.4%.
B) Food production was increased by 15%.
C) Manufacturing growth was 3.33%.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A & B
(5) Only B & C
Ans: ( 3 ) Only C

34. What are the objectives of the Task Force, out of
A, B, C and D given below, set up to suggest the modalities
for the implementation of interlinking of rivers?
A) To augment irrigation potential.
B) To fulfill the growing need of water.
C) To generate additional power.
D) To facilitate transportation in the country through
inland waterways.
(1) Only A & B
(2) Only B & C
(3) Only C & D
(4) Only D & A
(5) All A, B, C & D
Ans: ( 5 ) All A, B, C & D

35. Which of the following statement(s) about India?s
forex kitty is/are true?
A) India?s forex kitty grows fastest in the world.
B) India?s forex reserves registered a 169% growth
during two and a half years period ended in April 04.
C) India?s forex reserves growth established a huge
lead over the economics of the countries like U.K., USA and
Japan.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A & B
(5) All the three
Ans: ( 1 ) Only A

36. Which of the following correctly defines what
National Income means ?
A) It is the total earning of the employees of the
Central Government, all the State governments, all MLAs,
MPs and Ministers, etc. put together.
B) It is aggregate factor income which arises from the
current production of goods and services by the economy of
a country.
C) It is the total value of the goods produced in
various production centers run by the State and Union
Governments.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only B & C
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these

37. The increase in the world population has been
accompanied by a major shift in its distribution. The
share of the developed countries in the world population is
approximately.
(1) 15%
(2) 20%
(3) 25%
(4) 33%
(5) 38%
Ans: ( 4 ) 33%

38. Which of the following statements is/are true?
A) A substantial part of the population of the South
Asian countries do not have access to the safe drinking
water.
B) The pattern of water consumption in the region is
about 95% in agriculture and remaining 5% in industries.
No water for domestic use.
C) The time is such that almost one out of the four
hospital beds is occupied by a patient who is ill because
of water pollution.
(1) A & C only
(2) Only A
(3) Only C
(4) Only A & B
(5) A, B & C
Ans: ( 2 ) Only A

39. Which of the following is not the short name of a
programme designed for the employment generation?
(1) EAS
(2) PMIUPEP
(3) TRYSEM
(4) CAPART
(5) SJGSY
Ans: ( 1 ) EAS

40. Which of the following is NOT a part of the
Annapurna Yojana?
A) Every family will be provided 10 kg of food grains
if they are a family identified as living below poverty
line.
B) All those who were getting pension as Senior
Citizens are covered under the Scheme.
C) Only women are covered under this scheme.
(1) Only a
(2) Only B
(3) Only A & B
(4) Only C
(5) All A, B & C
Ans: ( 5 ) All A, B & C

41. The RBI announces Credit Policy twice in a year.
What is the significance of the Credit Policy. Which of
the following is/are the CORRECT statement(s) in this
regard?
A) It is a measure to influence the amount of money
and credit in Indian economy.
B) Credit Policy is a control on the rate of interest
offered by the Banks on their products.
C) It is an indication to the market that how they can
plan their production decisions.
D) It is the green signal to the Union Government that
they can plan their budget and introduce new taxes if they
so desire.
(1) Only A
(2) Only A & B
(3) Only B & C
(4) Only A, B & C
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) Only A, B & C

42. The RBI has four chief weapons to control or
maintain desired equilibrium in the economy of the
country. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
(1) Open market operations
(2) Reserve requirement (banks have to keep a
part of deposits in reserve)
(3) Repo rate
(4) Bank rate
(5) Introducing new taxes/levies, etc.
Ans: ( 3 ) Repo rate

43. The Government of India is seriously thinking to
repeal which of the following acts?
(1) FERA
(2) FEMA
(3) Rent Control Act
(4) POTA
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) POTA

44. Which of the following statements is/are correct in
respect of the exports of jewellery from India (Pick up
correct statements)?
A) Last year, the export of gems and jewellery from
India reached at a level of US $ 10 billion for the first
time.
B) India got top position in exports market of gems
and jewellery because of higher unit value realization for
cut and polished diamonds in which India dominates.
C) China & South Africa are the India?s two major
competitors in the field of exports of gems and jewellery.
(1) Only A & B
(2) Only B
(3) Only B & C
(4) Only C
(5) Only A & B
Ans: ( 4 ) Only C

45. Approximately, what percent of the total oil
production of the world is produced by OPEC nations ?
(1) 33%
(2) 45%
(3) 50%
(4) 65%
(5) 75%
Ans: ( 4 ) 65%

46. Which of the following countries announced that it
will help Pakistan to build a nuclear power plant ?
(1) S. Korea
(2) China
(3) Russia
(4) France
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) S. Korea

47. Noise pollution is measured in
(1) Microns
(2) Nautical miles
(3) Ohms
(4) Amperes
(5) Decibels
Ans: ( 5 ) Decibels

48. The reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the
Parliament is extended for a period of how many years after
2000?
(1) 5 years
(2) 6 years
(3) 8 years
(4) 10 years
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) 10 years

49. Which of the following non-trade issues has taken a
dominance in WTO agenda?
(1) Patents
(2) Genetically-modified crops
(3) Free trade
(4) Environment
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these

50. Which of the following cities is famous for trading
of diamonds in India?
(1) Jaipur
(2) Surat
(3) Mumbai
(4) Bangalore
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these


QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Directions (Qs. 1?4) : in each these questions, a
number series is given. After the series a number is given
followed by (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). You have to
complete the series starting with the number given,
following the sequence of the original series to answer the
question following both the series :
1. 16 24 36 54 81 121.5
14 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
what will come in place of (b) ?
(1) 34
(2) 31.5
(3) 30.5
(4) 32
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 2 ) 31.5

2. 7 15 31 63 127 255
4 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
What will come in place of (c) ?
(1) 81
(2) 92
(3) 74
(4) 66
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these

3. 6 18 36 108 216 648
2 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
What will come in place of (e) ?
(1) 482
(2) 344
(3) 216
(4) 420
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 3 ) 216

4. 4 3 16 9 256 81
6 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
What will come in place of (d) ?
(1) 872
(2) 948
(3) 1145
(4) 1296
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) 1296

5. A tap can completely fill a water tank in 8 hours.
The water tank has a hole in it through which the water
leaks out. The leakage will cause the water tank to get
empty in 12 hours. How much time will it take for the tap
to fill the water completely in the tank with the hole?
(1) 16 hours
(2) 29 hours
(3) 24 hours
(4) 18 hours
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 3 ) 24 hours

6. On the children?s day, chocolates were to be
equally distributed among 250 children. But on that day,
75 children were absent. Thus each student got 3
chocolates extra. How many chocolates were distributed in
all ?
(1) 2520
(2) 1750
(3) 1550
(4) 2500
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 2 ) 1750

7. Seven kg of sugar was available for Rs. 84 last
year. If this year, nine kg of sugar is available for Rs.
135, then how much is the percentage increase in the price
of sugar?
(1) 15
(2) 30
(3) 20
(4) 25
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) 25

8. Mr. Patkar earns Rs. 10,000 per month. Every year,
he spends 18 per cent of his annual income on buying
clothes. How much money does Mr. Patkar spend every month
on buying clothes ?
(1) Rs. 1,500
(2) Rs. 1,750
(3) Rs. 2,500
(4) Rs. 2,250
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these

9. The number of students studying Physics, Chemistry
and Zoology in a college in the year 2003 were in the ratio
4 : 3 : 5 respectively. If the number in these three
disciplines increased by 50%, 25% and 10% respectively in
the year 2004, then what was the new respective ratio?
(1) 24 : 15 : 22
(2) 18 : 11 : 13
(3) 24 : 13 : 17
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) 24 : 15 : 22

10. Prasad?s monthly income is 25% more than that of
Anam. Anam?s monthly income is 75% less than that of
Bhushan. If the difference between the monthly incomes of
Prasad and Bhushan is Rs. 26, 125, then what is Anam?s
monthly income ?
(1) Rs. 8,000
(2) Rs. 16,000
(3) Rs. 9,500
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 3 ) Rs. 9,500

11. The price of 5 chairs and 3 tables is Rs.
15015.20. Approximately, what will be the price of 9
tables and 15 chairs ?
(1) Rs. 50,000
(2) Rs. 37,000
(3) Rs. 45,000
(4) Rs. 40,000
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 3 ) Rs. 45,000

12. Three-fourth of two-third of five-seventh of a
number is 15. What is half of that number ?
(1) 21
(2) 26
(3) 42
(4) 25
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) 21

13. Riya and Mita can independently complete a piece of
work in 15 minutes and 10 minutes respectively. If they
work together, then how much time will they take to
complete that piece of work?
(1) 4 minutes
(2) 9 minutes
(3) 6 minutes
(4) 8 minutes
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 3 ) 6 minutes

14. Kumar borrowed Rs. 6,500 from Devang on simple
interest. After 4 years, Kumar paid back Devang. Rs.
2,080 more than what he had borrowed. What was the rate of
interest per annum ?
(1) 6%
(2) 8%
(3) 12%
(4) 7%
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 2 ) 8%

15. 50% of a number is 39 more than 35% of the same
number. What is 115 percent of that number ?
(1) 179
(2) 299
(3) 85
(4) 215
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 2 ) 299

16. The average age of 82 students and the class
teacher is 18. The total age of only the students is
1450. What is the class teacher?s age ?
(1) 37
(2) 40
(3) 48
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these

17. The average marks obtained by Amit in English and
History is 95. The average marks obtained by him in
English and Science is 87. What is the difference between
the marks obtained by him in History and Science ?
(1) 20
(2) 40
(3) 12
(4) 16
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these

18. The total of the present ages of A and B together
is 12 years more than the total of the present ages of B
and C together. C is how many years younger than A ?
(1) 12
(2) 24
(3) Data inadequate
(4) C is older than A
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) 12

Directions (Qs. 19?23) : In each of these
questions, a question is followed by the information given
in the three statements. You have to study the question
along with the statements to decide that the information
given in which of the statement(s) is necessary to answer
the given question :
19. What is the speed of the current ?
I. Speed of the boat is 4 km/hr in still water.
II. Boat runs at a spped of 6 km/hr downstream.
III. The difference between the speeds of the boat while
traveling in still water and downstream is 2 km/hr.
(1) Only I and II
(2) Only III
(3) Either I & II together or only III
(4) Only I and either II or III
(5) Any one of the three
Ans: ( 3 ) Either I & II together or only III

20. What was the amount of profit earned ?
I. 8% discount was offered on the labeled price.
II. Had there been no discount then profit would have
been 29%
III. Selling price was more than the cost price by 16%
(1) I and either II or III
(2) Any two of the three
(3) All I, II and III
(4) Either I or II and III
(5) Question cannot be answered even with the
information given in all the three statements
Ans: ( 5 ) Question cannot be answered even
with the information given in all the three statements

21. What is Amar?s present salary?
I. The salary increases every year by 12%.
II. His salary at the time of joining was Rs. 3,500.
III. He had joined exactly 7 years ago.
(1) II and III only
(2) All I, II and III
(3) I and II only
(4) I and III only
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 2 ) All I, II and III

22. What is the total strength of the college ?
I. 45% of the students are studying Commerce only.
II. 1543 students are studying disciplines other than
Arts.
III. 1375 students are studying disciplines other than
Commerce.
(1) Only I and III
(2) Only II and III
(3) Only I
(4) Only III
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) Only I and III

23. What is the rate of simple interest per annum ?
I. An amount of Rs. 7,500 increases by Rs. 1,125 at
the end of the year.
II. The principal amount of Rs. 6,000 increases by
three times in 20 years.
III. Interest accured on an amount of Rs. 5,200 in 3
years is Rs. 2,340.
(1) Either I and II or III only
(2) Only III
(3) Only I
(4) Any one of the three
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) Any one of the three

Directions (Qs. 24 to 28) : Study the following
table carefully to answer these questions :
.
Year
School 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002
A 25 80 50 30 15 75
B 30 35 45 25 60 85
C 65 60 55 40 75 75
D 80 3 20 95 70 55
E 10 25 75 65 70 90
F 55 55 95 88 85 90

.
24. If the total number of students appearing in SSC
from School C in the year 2001 was 1204, then what was the
number of students passed ?
(1) 900
(2) 897
(3) 905
(4) 850
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these

25. What is the ratio of the number of students passing
SSC from School A to that of School E in the year 1999, if
the number of students appeared was 2914 and 604 from
School A and E respectively in that year ?
(1) 1457 : 453
(2) 1450 : 457
(3) 1277 : 527
(4) 1834 : 627
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) 1457 : 453

26. What is the percentage increase/decrease in the
number of students passing SSC from School F in the year
2000 from the previous year ?
(1) 10
(2) 65
(3) 17
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) Cannot be determined

27. If the number of students passing SSC from School D
in the year 1997 was 1840, then how many students had
appeared in SSC from that School in the same year ?
(1) 2500
(2) 2300
(3) 1900
(4) 2800
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 2 ) 2300

28. If the number of students appeared in SSC from
School B in the year 1997, 1998 and 2002 is 980, 2540 and
1200 respectively, then what is the total number of
students passed in those years ?
(1) 2503
(2) 2105
(3) 2203
(4) 2315
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 3 ) 2203

Directions (Qs. 29 to 32) : Study the following
graph carefully to answer these questions :
NUMBER OF STUDENTS PREFERRING DIFFERENT BEVERAGES
FROM
5 COLLEGES

.

29. Which of the colleges has the highest percentage of
students preferring Coffee over the total of students in
the college ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Ans: ( 3 ) C

30. Total number of students preferring Tea from all
the colleges together is what percent of the total number
of students from all the colleges together ?
(1) 32
(2) 47
(3) 51
(4) 24
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these

31. What is the total number of students preferring
Cola from all the colleges together ?
(1) 2100
(2) 1900
(3) 2400
(4) 1500
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 5 ) None of these

32. What is the ratio between the number of students
preferring Tea and Cola together from college D to the
students preferring Coffee and Cola together from College
E ?
(1) 7 : 6
(2) 4 : 5
(3) 6 : 7
(4) 5 : 4
(5) None of them
Ans: ( 4 ) 5 : 4

Directions (Qs. 33 to 37) : Study the following
table carefully to answer these questions :
NUMBER OF ARTICLES (IN THOUSANDS) MANUFACTURED (M)
AND DEFECTIE (D) BY 5 UNITS OF A COMPANY OVER THE YEARS
Year UNIT
I II III IV V
M D M D M D M
D M D
1996 53 21 45 12 76 38 56
21 46 18
1997 49 18 32 10 45 24 63
24 36 14
1998 50 18 48 18 55 16 68
30 34 15
1999 65 20 68 15 57 2 54
19 48 12
2000 70 31 72 13 82 22 48
27 58 10
2001 44 15 56 22 38 32 40
15 60 11

.
33. During which year the largest percentage of the
article was defective out of the articles manufactured by
Unit IV ?
(1) 1996
(2) 1997
(3) 1998
(4) 1999
(5) 2000
Ans: ( 5 ) 2000

34. What is the average number of defective items from
Unit II for the given years ?
(1) 21,500
(2) 17,000
(3) 12,500
(4) 15,000
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 4 ) 15,000

35. What is the ratio between the total number of
articles manufactured by Unit III to that by Unit V for all
the years together ?
(1) 353 : 282
(2) 282 : 353
(3) 457 : 215
(4) 215 : 457
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 1 ) 353 : 282

36. What was the percentage (rounded off to the nearest
integer) of the defective articles over the number of
articles manufactured by all the Units together in the year
2001?
(1) 42
(2) 40
(3) 37
(4) 33
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 2 ) 40

37. During which year, there was the percentage
increase / decrease in manufacture from the previous year,
the highest, for Unit I?
(1) 1998
(2) 2001
(3) 1999
(4) 1997
(5) None of these
Ans: ( 2 ) 2001

SAMPLE PAPER - Bank Probationary Officer Recruitment Exam

(Practice Questions for SBI, Corporation Bank, Allahabad Bank, Bank of Baroda Exam)

REASONING - MENTAL ABILITY - APTITUDE

1. ‘Captain' is related to a ‘Team' in the same way as ‘Director' is related to

(1) Supervisor (2) Employee

(3) Organisation (4) Union

(5) Customer

2. Find the odd one out of the following options

(1) Aunt (2) Child

(3) Father (4) Niece

(5) Relation

3. Pointing to a photograph of Mahesh, Ram said. "The father of his sister is the husband of my wife's mother". How is Ram related to Mahesh?

(1) Brother (2) Brother-in-law

(3) Father-in-law (4) Data not sufficient

(5) None of these

4. If ‘fork' is called ‘plate', ‘plate' is called 'knife', ‘knife' is called ‘jug', ‘jug' is called ‘glass', ‘glass' is called ‘cup' and ‘cup' is called ‘fork', by what do we cut fruit?

(1) spoon (2) jug

(3) glass (4) saucer

(5) none of these

5. If ‘a' is substituted by 26,'B' by 25 and so on up to ‘Z' which is substituted by 1, what will be the sum of the numbers substituted for the word ‘XRAY'?

(1) 33 (2) 40

(3) 37 (4) 73

(5) None of these

6. In a certain code COIMBATORE is written as DPJNCBUPSF. How is INDORE written in that code?

(1) JOENQF (2) JMCPQD

(3) JOEPSF (4) HMCNQD

(5) None of these

7. Geeta is elder to Seeta but not to Deepa. Gayatri is younger than Deepa. No one is elder to Fatima. Who is youngest of them all?

(1) Seeta (2) Geeta

(3) Gayatri (4) Data not sufficient

(5) None of these

8. Raman is sitting to the immediate left of Harry but not next to Kamal. Mahesh is sitting to the right of Kamal. If the four friends are sitting in a circle who is sitting to the immediate right of Harry?

(1) Mahesh (2) Kamal

(3) Raman (4) Harry

(5) Cannot be determined

9. How many three letter meaningful English words can be formed from the word NOTE beginning with ‘T' and without repeating any letter?

(1) Three (2) One

(3) Two (4) None

(5) None of these

Directions (11-15): Answer question 11 to 15 based on the following sequence:

A $ B # 9 G 3D K « M ? C Q 2 X 7 P 5 U 8 I 4 Y ə J

11. How many elements in the above arrangement are both immediately preceded and immediately followed by a number?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Five

(5) None of these

12. Which of the following will be the fifteenth element from the left end if all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, keeping the position of the other elements in arrangement un-changed?

(1) 5 (2) 4

(3) 7 (4) 8

(5) None of these

13. How many letters in the above arrangement are immediately followed by a symbol?

(1) Two (2) Five

(3) Four (4) Three

(5) None of these

14. Which of the following will be eighth to the left of the twelfth from the left end of the arrangement?

(1) # (2) 7

(3) U (4) 9

(5) None of these

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) G$M (2) K9Q

(3) ?D7 (4) 2MU

(5) PCI

16. In a certain code language' In ba pe' means ‘he has won','le ki ba' means ‘she has lost' and ‘in se pe' means ‘he always won'. Which word in that language means ‘he'?

(1) in (2) pe

(3) se (4) Data not sufficient

(5) None of these

17. X is Y's brother. S is T's mother and X's aunt. How is T related to X?

(1) Sister (2) Cousin

(3) Aunt (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

18. If the letters of the word OBSERVANT are interchanged, such that the first becomes ninth, second becomes eighth, and so on, and the position of the fifth letter remains unchanged then what will be the new arrangement of letters?

(1) TNAVERSBO (2) TNVARESBO

(3) NTAVERSBO (4) VANTRESBO

(5) None of these

19. If 1 is coded as Ś, 5 is coded as %, 6 is coded as «, 3 is coded as +, 7 is coded as # and 4 is coded as ? What will be the correct form of the number 435671?

(1) ? + % « # Ś (2) ? + % Ś # «

(3) ? + « % # Ś (4) Ś # « % + ?

(5) None of these

20. Which of the following have the same relationship as BREAD:DBARE?

(1) SWORN: NSOWR (2) FUNDS: FSDUN

(3) GLAZE : EGZAL (4) LOWER: RLEWO

(5) None of these

Directions (21-25): Read the following information and attempt the given questions:

Six executive Aman, Bindu, Deepa, Jitu, Kamal and Priyanka have to advertise four products i.e. soap, watches, computers and chocolates on 3 different channels, i.e. Go, Come and Fun either alone or in pairs. An executive can visit only one channel and advertise only one product. No more than two executives can advertise on a channel.

(i) Bindu and Jitu both visit the same channel but advertise different products.

(ii) Aman who visits ‘Go' advertises neither soap nor computers.

(iii) Kamal does not advertise chocolates.

(iv) No girl advertises soap.

(v) The two executives who advertise chocolates visit Spice

(vi)

21. Who advertises watches?

(1) Deepa (2) Kamal

(3) Aman (4) Priyanka

(5) None of these

22. Which of the following Channel-product pairs in definitely incorrect?

(1) Go-watch (2) Come-computer

(3) Go-soap (4) Come-soap

(5) Come-watch

23. Which channel does Kamal visit?

(1) Go (2) Fun

(3) Come (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

24. If Bipasha advertises computers which of the following must be true?

(1) Jitu advertises soap (2) Jitu advertises watches

(3) Kamal advertises computers (4) Kamal works for Fun

(5) None of these

25. What will Jitu advertise?

(1) Chocolates (2) Watches

(3) Computers or watches (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

26. Swaroop and Simple want to attend a seminar together between 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. on Friday. Simple cannot leave till after her lunch break which begins at 1.30 p.m. Swaroop is free after her meeting which ends at noon. For how many hours can the two of them attend the seminar?

(1) 3 ½ hours (2) 2 ½ hours

(3) 4 ½ hours (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

27. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ANSWER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are in the English language?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Four (4) Three

(5) None of these

28. Find the odd one out

(1) 2 (2) 7

(3) 11 (4) 13

(5) 9

29. If all the letters in the word MERCIFUL are rearranged in alphabetical order and substituted by the alphabet preceding them in the English alphabet what will be the new arrangement of letters?

(1) BDHEKLQT (2) BDEHKLQT

(3) BDEHLKQT (4) BDEJMLQT

(5) None of these

30. Out of 38 families in a housing society 5 subscribe to Hindi news-papers alone, 12 subscribe to both Hindi and Marathi newspapers. Find the number of Maranthi news-paper subscribers.

(1) 9 (2) 21

(3) 17 (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

Directions (31-35): Below are given letters and their numeric codes. Below that are given some conditions to be followed while codifying the given letter groups in each question. Study them and find out the correct numeric coded form of the given letter group in each question. If none of the coded forms is correct, your answer will be (5) i.e. ‘None of these'.

Letters M
Q
I
N
E
Y
U
G
R

Numeric Codes 2
5
3
7
1
8
4
6
9


Conditions:

(i) If the first and last letters are vowels both are to be coded as Ś.

(ii) If the second letter is a vowel and the third letter is a consonant a single code is to be used and both are to be coded jointly as %.

(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as?

31. ENIMY

(1) 1%28 (2) ?732?

(3) 17328 (4) ?7328

(5) None of these

32. GENIR

(1) ?173? (2) 6%39

(3) 6%79 (4) 61739

(5) None of these

33. QUERI

(1) 5%93 (2) ?413?

(3) ?4139 (4) ?419?

(5) None of these

34. EINUM

(1) 1%72 (2) 0%42

(3) 1374? (4) 1%43

(5) None of these

35. UNGRE

(1) Ś769 Ś (2) 4769 Ś

(3) 47691 (4) Ś7691

(5) None of these

Directions (36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.

Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.

Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.

Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Give answer (5) if both conclusions I or II follow.

36. Statements: Some pencils are lead. All lead are ink

Conclusions:

I. Some ink are pencils.

II. All ink are lead.

37. Statements: Some ovens are refrigerator. Some refrigerators are ACs.

Conclusions:

I. Some ACs are ovens.

II. No. AC is oven.

38. Statements: All planes are birds. All birds are clouds.

Conclusions:

I. Some planes are clouds.

II. Some clouds are birds.

39. Statements: Some sweets are salt. No salt in spice.

Conclusions:

I.. Some sweets are spice.

II. No spice is salt.

40. Statements: Some papers are plastics. All papers are clothes.

Conclusions:

I. Some plastics are clothes.

II. Some plastics are papers.

Directions (41-45): Each of the following questions below consists a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide if the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and:

Give answer (1) if the data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (4) if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

41. How is ‘cricket' written in a code language?

I. ‘Dinesh play cricket' is written as ‘do si ha'.

II. ‘play cricket now' is written as ‘ha si ma'.

42. Who is the oldest among L, M, N, O,P?

I. P is older than M and N but not O.

II. L is older than O.

43. When is Rahul's birthday?

I. Rahul and Shivani are twins.

II. Rahul was born on the last day of February in a leap year.

44. What is the strength of the class?

I. Shekhar stood 28 ranks below the top ranker and Mahesh who stood 5 ranks below him stood last.

II. Jayesh was 9 ranks below Ramesh who stood 27th from the top.

45. How far does Shruti live from the school?

I. Shruti has to cycle 3 kms. To her friend Mina's house which is 4 kms. From thee school.

II. Gitanjali lives exactly opposite the school and walks 2 kms. to reach Shruti's house.

Directions (46-50): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below:

972 526 487 359 251

46. If the positions of the firs and second digits are interchanged which of the following will be third if they are arranged in ascending order?

(1) 359 (2) 972

(3) 526 (4) 487

(5) 251

47. If 2 is added to the sum of the digits of each of the above numbers how many will be multiples of 5?

(1) None (2) One

(3) Two (4) Three

(5) None of these

48. If 1 is subtracted from the last digit of each of the above numbers the sum of the digits of how many of them are prime numbers?

(1) None (2) Two

(3) One (4) Three

(5) All five

49. If the digits in each of the above numbers are written in reverse order which will be the second highest number?

(1) 251 (2) 359

(3) 487 (4) 526

(5) 972

50. If the positions of the digits of each of the numbers are interchanged such that the first becomes second, second becomes third and third becomes firs, which, of the following will be the highest?

(1) 972 (2) 526

(3) 487 (4) 251

(5) 359

Answer Key for Mental Aptitude Reasoning


1. (3) 2. (5) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (2)
6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (1)
11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (5)
16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (5) 19. (1) 20. (5)
21. (3) 22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (3)
26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (5) 29. (2) 30. (5)
31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (4) 34. (5) 35. (1)
36. (1) 37. (3) 38. (5) 39. (2) 40. (5)
41. (4) 42. (5) 43. (2) 44. (1) 45. (3)
46. (1) 47. (4) 48. (3) 49. (3) 50. (5)